This is something I've been thinking about for a while. Please bear with me while I try to organize my thoughts. First though, a little background on my family and me. I've dealt with depression and anxiety most of my life. It started after the onset of puberty. My mother, my sister, my brother, myself and now my oldest daughter have all fallen into this same pattern. We've all talked about it and figured it was hormonally related (due to it starting after puberty). My brother was recently diagnosed as bi-polar. At 40 he is finally on meds that are helping him to have a life rather than self-medicating with booze and pot (which has all but destroyed his life). My mother has been told by her doctor that she's going to be on anti-depressants for the rest of her life. Why? I don't know. She's from the generation that if a doctor tells you something you don't ask questions...you just do it. I've tried to get her to ask questions and tired of beating my head on that particular wall very quickly. I have PTSD (I know, I know...please let me get to my point) and we're keeping a real close eye on my oldest daughter. Here is my point. Obviously there are mental health issues with my family. In all of the research I've done on PTSD, the question of why one person gets it after exposure to trauma when another exposed to trauma doesn't get it has been raised again and again. Has there been any research or has anyone heard of any where the person with PTSD is studied, their past mental health history (pre-PTSD) AND that of their family is studied? Could past mental health problems (depression, anxiety, OCD, etc.) be the thing that determines (or contributes) when a person has trauma and PTSD comes into the picture? I have no idea. It's just something I've been pondering. Anyone want to toss in their two cents on this?