That's called anecdotal evidence. I'm not asking for that. They do not represent a whole, just themselves. It does not make their experience any less real. It's just not proof that white privilege exists. You went on such a leap I feel the need to point this out.
Pick up almost any sociology or cultural anthropology text.
White Privilege exists in most of the West, the exact same way that Asian Privilege exists in most of the East.
In certain cultures where caste systems are in place, or tribal superiority, (or a few other social constructs) the caste or tribal system (or similar) supercedes this much looser construct.
Racial Privilege exists in regions where there is
both a clear majority (in either numbers, or social powers - think white minority in South Africa... There are other examples in Asia & Africa, but most westerners are familiar with Apartheid ),
and a fairly recent history of institutionalized racism
even if the convention no longer exists. That's the part that's hard for members of the majority to usually wrap their heads around.
To use the US as an example...
- After the abolition of slavery in the 1860s, the majority view was that "the negro" was now equal (it was a pissed off view, for a lot of people, afraid of jobs being taken/ or that they "shouldn't" think they were as good as a white man/ etc., but it was still the majority held view that "the negro" was equal whether they were determined to kick them in the teeth over that or not), even though we very much know that equality was not the case, in law or in practice.
- After the equal rights movement in the 1970s, again the majority view is that "white privilege" is a made up thing / "But I'm not racist!" Or "Privilege my ass, I grew up in the gutter and I'm white!" Being the two most common arguments against it. But both arguments are like saying that racism in the states didn't exist after slavery was abolished, or that racism didn't exist after slavery was abolished because there were poor white people.
Racial Privilege is a TRANSITIONAL GAP, what happens between state sanctioned racism, and true equality. In general it lasts 3-5 generations.
Presently, in most of the West, it's "White Privilege". Historically, it can still be race-based but subdivisions within a race (similar to Black Russians v White Russians... When both are Caucasian). Or nationality based (think of Irish & Italian Immigrants). To the point that there are still signs around (museums mostly) of businesses barring "negroes & Irish" (or niggers & micks).
The gap with Irish & Italian Immigrants closed right around WWII. Irish more around WWI, but they'd not only enmassed here first, but almost single handledly took over the police force of most major cities at the time within a couple generations. Italians came enmasse a bit later, and not only didn't bulwark themselves into the government, the same way but had a nasty political structure back in Italy marking them the same way refugees are marked and looked down upon now (think especially of "Mexican" immigrants and how they're treated, even though tons and tons of Latin immigrants are from a huge number of meso & South American countries... The trend exists on a global scale; if we don't like the government you're fleeing from? We don't like you. It doesn't make sense, but it really does exist worldwide.) it was the "Roman Method" that really assimilated the Italians. Enlisting in the military = American Citizenship back in WWII, and whatever name you enlisted under? Became your legal name. There was serious talk of interning Italian-Americans right along with the Japanese, but Pearl Harbor saw
millions of Italian Americans dropping the O or I at the end of their last name when dad or big brother enlisted to serve (all dependents = automatic name change in the 1940s when head of household changed their name). It was done mostly out of fear of internment, but it had the added benefit of anglicizing a huge portion of the Italian American community / making them more acceptable to the Anglo majority with French sounding last names, and the war really finished the assimilation for most.
Here in the states the Irish & Italians were the last subdivisions of "white" to be assimilated.
From 1945-present? "White" has been a unified description here in the states. It only took about 200 years for
that to happen here :p English v Dutch v French v etc. And, yes. In a lot of cases it took a war to
start the 3-5 generation gap. Bonds of brotherhood, indeed. (In other countries that's been true longer, shorter, or still isn't true -Hi, Russia!-)
Back to racial privilege!!!
We can really thank WWII & Vietnam for fueling the civil rights movement down here stateside. But that did, eventually, kick off. And from the 70s onward? We have started our 3-5 generation gap.
Essentially... Everyone who ever existed in sanctioned racism has die. And then their children who loved them have to get old. Wars help speed that process up, but are more instrumental in starting the process than finishing it.
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I mentioned about a novel & a half ago that Asian Privilege exists in the east. Historically, the same patterns of wars to kick off the process of the racial privilege gap, and 3-5 generations to end it, hold true. The Middle East, Near East, & Africa
usually use different social constructs. Tends to be more tribal based (Western cultures have tribal examples; Highland vs Lowland Clans in Scotland, Clans against Clans, and Clans against the English just one of several; and Eastern/African cultures have racial examples).
It's a very human phenomenon.
We don't transition easily, as a species. We like our routines. Individuals always vary, but as a whole we are slow to change. Social change takes generations to effect.
