It's pretty invalidating for those of us that have the symptoms of trauma, but I work with therapists that don't get caught up in the labels and I don't get caught up in them either.
I'm glad you have this support :hug: I totally get the invalidating part.
From a white paper published by Pai, Sirius and North in 2017 in the journal Behavioral Science:
Thank you for the paper. I've scanned it and will read it in more detail later.
@siniang The way ‘accident’ is used in this context is indicative of : car accident, bike accident, skiing accident, climbing accident, work accident, boating accident, etc... a more British English word would be ‘misadventure’, specifically ‘death by misadventure’.
Natural Causes (including unexpected ones like heart attack, stroke, etc.) are specifically ruled out for several reasons, mostly because the symptom set / timeline for recovery (and therefore expectations and treatment) is different. Shock & profound grief can both be lethal (both in the moment/ acutely & over time/ long term), and both often have devastating consequences.
@Friday Genuinely thank you for your reply. I always appreciate you taking the time to answer my stupid questions. Though I have to admit, most of it felt somewhat tangential to my initial question (and I mean, yeah, broken-heart syndrome is a thing. I never doubted the impact and fallout grief, with or without trauma, can have)
I genuinely don't mean to be difficult. I'm really trying to understand. Because, I do fail to see the biological difference between:
Grief due to child/spouse/sibling/close friend dying suddenly and unexpectedly to "natural" causes (heart attack, stroke, ...suicide?)
Grief due to child/spouse/sibling/close friend dying suddenly und unexpectedly from "violent or accidental causes" (being shot, in an accident, natural disasters?...)
Why would the grief, the impact on the bereaved be different? The person is still dead. The result the same. Both can be (and probably are) equally traumatic to the person. So, how can the sheer fact that a loved one is dead (or faced a threat thereof) cause different reactions in the person not directly affected based on the causes?
Because, to bring in another example, that would also exclude complications from child-birth, which has previously been linked to having the potential of causing PTSD in women?
Off the top of your head, would you have any peer-reviewed publications on the reasoning to restrict it like this? (other than criterion creep) I don't really have time right now to do an extensive literature review and didn't find anything right away while briefly looking.
But at least to me, that doesn't seem very logical (In contrast to the other example we talked about the other day, the bad drug trip - because it happened to the person experiencing it and claiming to have PTSD, not the bystander)
And, then, what about the Ts/PsyDocs/Countries/... that don't use the DSM-5 to diagnose?
I get the argument that people misdiagnosed with PTSD and in the absent of a qualifying Criterion A trauma could probably have an Adjustment Disorder or an Anxiety Disorder (once we move outside the timeframe for Acute Stress Disorder) - but neither of them have Criterion B symptoms as diagnostic criteria, for example, do they (please, tell me if I'm mistaken). I still fail to see the significance of someone meeting all other Criterions B-F, but failing to get a diagnosis (and potentially help) because they don't have Criterion A (anymore after chance from 4 to 5). And so do the studies, actually, that have shown that hardly ever does someone meet B-F, but not A ...but that gets tricky when A changes to suddenly exclude previously qualifying events, case in point:
@HealingMama (word of caution in her case: trauma pre-dating her dad, as far as I remember, so my argument is somewhat weak :oops: ).
Pai et al. 2017:
A DSM-IV/DSM-5 comparison study conducted by Kilpatrick and colleagues [20] using highly structured self-report inventories demonstrated that 60% of PTSD cases that met DSM-IV but not proposed DSM-5 PTSD criteria were excluded from theDSM-5 because the traumatic events involved only nonviolent deaths.
[20] Kilpatrick et al. 2014:
National Estimates of Exposure to Traumatic Events and PTSD Prevalence Using DSM-IV and DSM-5 Criteria
So, since we always say it doesn't matter how traumatic it "felt", what matters is how it impacts the Amygdala, that's where I'm wondering about the biology behind it (see above, how are the two events having the same result different and impacting the Amygdala differently based on the causes or whether or not it just comes down to assumptions (hence my question re publications).
Frankly, sometimes I feel this comes down to insurances and money and disability decisions and fails to ignore the biology behind it (god forbid we could diagnose and support just ONE person falsely - yes, I'm being smug. Sorry :oops: ).
https://www.ptsd.va.gov/professional/articles/article-pdf/id35490.pdf
On the other hand, concern has been expressed about the greater number of qualifying A1 events in DSM-IV in comparison to DSM-III. It has been argued that expansion of qualifying A1 events has diluted the basicPTSD construct and permitted people to receive thePTSD diagnosis for less threatening events that should really be associated with an adjustment disorder or
anxiety disorder NOS.[25] This expansion has been called ‘‘bracket creep’’[23] or ‘‘criterion creep’’[26] and is presumed to have a particularly adverse impact in forensic settings or disability evaluations where it has been blamed for frivolous tort or compensation claims.