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Is a person ALWAYS a pedophile if they do a pedophilic act?

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OceanSpray

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If a person touches a child in an effort to please another person when they wouldn’t normally touch the child otherwise- does that still make them a pedophile themselves?
 
Someone on here a while back wrote about all the different pedophiles they encountered living as a trafficked child. They said there are many different kinds but the main kinds they saw were
  • Generic (possibly genetic) kind who have an innate attraction to children and seek out fulfilling their fantasies
  • Those who only do it to one individual child, their own or otherwise, for some period of time and then never again
  • Revenge/sadist kind who do it to hurt someone connected to the child or as a way to vent their negative feelings toward humanity/women/children
  • Intellectually-disabled kind who genuinely don’t understand that what they are doing is wrong
  • High on drugs kind who wouldn’t do it if they were sober
That’s all I can remember. I think the term specifically means someone who is genetically predisposed but society has a broader definition?
 
Pedophilia is defined by sexual attraction to children, if I recall correctly.

So not all paedophilic acts are done by pedophiles. But for obvious reasons, a lot are…

It’s the same as bestiality; not all acts of bestiality are done by zoophiles.

The act does not immediately dictate the perpetrator, as factors vary. Like in your example, coercion.
 
Also, another related example: Same-sex rape or sexual assault is not always done by homosexual perpetrators. But as Friday brought out, it is still rape/assault, etc. Which is the main part.

Intent and inner workings of the perpetrator is secondary, and can only be extrapolated until/unless looked into, case-by-case.
Possessing CP… likely pedophile. Explicit conversations with children and trying to elicit photos? Pretty much the nail in the coffin.

Whys have a hand in who we (want to) blame/punish the most, but not much in how traumatic the event is for the abused.
 
If a person touches a child in an effort to please another person when they wouldn’t normally touch the child otherwise- does that still make them a pedophile themselves?
It makes them totally unsafe and abusive. And they could do it again as they have no sense of being able to say no to the other person. They have chosen the other person's needs above the needs of a child (and themselves?).

Other have said there is coercion. But maybe there was and maybe there wasn't. I'm not clear there was coercion in this scenario? Just an "effort to please" someone. Which sounds very much like freewill and choice.
 
In my experience, my groomer/molester would say it was drugs that made him hurt me but then he just continued to hurt me even while sober and I would notice odd things he would say about other kids. But he would go insane if someone called him a pedophile. I feel like if someone hurts a child once or many times, they are always a pedophile.
 
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